1.
With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from
a program prior to delivery to the customer.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
2.
Which of the following are characteristics of testable software
?
a. observability b. simplicity c. stability d. all of the above
ANSWER : d
a. observability b. simplicity c. stability d. all of the above
ANSWER : d
3.
The testing technique that requires devising test cases to
demonstrate that each program function is operational is called
a. black-box testing b. glass-box testing
a. black-box testing b. glass-box testing
c. grey-box testing d. white-box testing
ANSWER : a
ANSWER : a
4.
The testing technique that requires devising test cases to
exercise the internal logic of a software module is called
a. behavioral testing b. black-box testing c. grey-box testing d. white-box testing
ANSWER : d
a. behavioral testing b. black-box testing c. grey-box testing d. white-box testing
ANSWER : d
5.
What types of errors are missed by black-box testing and can be
uncovered by white-box testing ?
a. behavioral errors b. logic errors c. performance errors d. typographical errors
e. both b and d
ANSWER : e
a. behavioral errors b. logic errors c. performance errors d. typographical errors
e. both b and d
ANSWER : e
6.
Program flow graphs are identical to program flowcharts.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
7.
The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with
information regarding the number of
a. cycles in the program b. errors in the program
a. cycles in the program b. errors in the program
c. independent logic paths in
the program d. statements in the
program
ANSWER : c
ANSWER : c
8.
The cyclomatic complexity of a program can be computed directly
from a PDL representation of an algorithm without drawing a program flow graph.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
9.
Condition testing is a control structure testing technique where
the criteria used to design test cases is that they
a. rely on basis path testing
b. exercise the logical conditions in a program module
c. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
d. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
ANSWER : b
a. rely on basis path testing
b. exercise the logical conditions in a program module
c. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
d. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
ANSWER : b
10.
Data flow testing is a control structure testing technique where
the criteria used to design test cases is that they
a. rely on basis path testing
b. exercise the logical conditions in a program module
c. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
d. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
ANSWER : c
a. rely on basis path testing
b. exercise the logical conditions in a program module
c. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
d. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
ANSWER : c
11.
Loop testing is a control structure testing technique where the
criteria used to design test cases is that they
a. rely basis path testing
b. exercise the logical conditions in a program module
c. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
d. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
ANSWER : d
a. rely basis path testing
b. exercise the logical conditions in a program module
c. select test paths based on the locations and uses of variables
d. focus on testing the validity of loop constructs
ANSWER : d
12.
Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the
following categories
a. incorrect or missing functions b. interface errors c. performance errors
d. all of the above e. none of the above
ANSWER : d
a. incorrect or missing functions b. interface errors c. performance errors
d. all of the above e. none of the above
ANSWER : d
13.
Graph-based testing methods can only be used for object-oriented
systems
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
14.
Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data
from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases
that must be developed.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
15.
Boundary value analysis can only be used to do white-box
testing.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
16.
Comparison testing is typically done to test two competing
products as part of customer market analysis prior to product release.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
17.
Orthogonal array testing enables the test designer to maximize
the coverage of the test cases devised for relatively small input domains.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
18.
Test case design "in the small" for OO software is
driven by the algorithmic detail of
the individual operations.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
the individual operations.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
19.
Encapsulation of attributes and operations inside objects makes
it easy to obtain object state information during testing.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
20.
Use-cases can provide useful input into the design of black-box
and state-based tests of OO software.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
21.
Fault-based testing is best reserved for
a. conventional software testing
b. operations and classes that are critical or suspect
c. use-case validation
d. white-box testing of operator algorithms
ANSWER : b
a. conventional software testing
b. operations and classes that are critical or suspect
c. use-case validation
d. white-box testing of operator algorithms
ANSWER : b
22.
Testing OO class operations is made more difficult by
a. encapsulation b. inheritance c. polymorphism d. both b and c
ANSWER : d
a. encapsulation b. inheritance c. polymorphism d. both b and c
ANSWER : d
23.
Scenario-based testing
a. concentrates on actor and software interaction
b. misses errors in specifications
c. misses errors in subsystem interactions
d. both a and b
ANSWER : a
a. concentrates on actor and software interaction
b. misses errors in specifications
c. misses errors in subsystem interactions
d. both a and b
ANSWER : a
24.
Deep structure testing is not designed to
a. examine object behaviors
b. exercise communication mechanisms
c. exercise object dependencies
d. exercise structure observable by the user
ANSWER : d
a. examine object behaviors
b. exercise communication mechanisms
c. exercise object dependencies
d. exercise structure observable by the user
ANSWER : d
25.
Random order tests are conducted to exercise different class
instance life histories.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
26.
Which of these techniques is not useful for partition testing at
the class level
a. attribute-based partitioning b. category-based partitioning
c. equivalence class partitioning d. state-based partitioning
ANSWER : c
a. attribute-based partitioning b. category-based partitioning
c. equivalence class partitioning d. state-based partitioning
ANSWER : c
27.
Multiple class testing is too complex to be tested using random
test cases.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
28.
Tests derived from behavioral class models should be based on
the
a. data flowdiagram b. object-relation diagram
a. data flowdiagram b. object-relation diagram
c. state diagram d. use-case diagram
ANSWER : c
ANSWER : c
29.
Client/server architectures cannot be properly tested because
network load is highly variable.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
30.
Real-time applications add a new and potentially difficult element
to the testing mix
a. performance b. reliability c. security d. time
ANSWER : d
a. performance b. reliability c. security d. time
ANSWER : d
31.
What is the meaning of COSO ?
a. Common Sponsoring Organizations
b. Committee Of Sponsoring Organizations
c. Committee Of Standard Organizations
d. Common Standard Organization
e. None of the above
ANSWER : b
a. Common Sponsoring Organizations
b. Committee Of Sponsoring Organizations
c. Committee Of Standard Organizations
d. Common Standard Organization
e. None of the above
ANSWER : b
32.
Which one is not key term used in internal control and security
a. Threat b. Risk Control c. Vulnerability d. Exposure e. None
ANSWER : c
a. Threat b. Risk Control c. Vulnerability d. Exposure e. None
ANSWER : c
33.
Management is not responsible for an organization internal
control system
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
34.
Who is ultimate responsible for the internal control system
a. CEO b. Project Manager c. Technical Manager
a. CEO b. Project Manager c. Technical Manager
d. Developer e. Tester
ANSWER : a
ANSWER : a
35.
Who will provide important oversight to the internal control
system
a. Board of Directors b. Audit Committee c. Accounting Officers
d. Financial Officers e. both a & b f. both c & d
ANSWER : e
a. Board of Directors b. Audit Committee c. Accounting Officers
d. Financial Officers e. both a & b f. both c & d
ANSWER : e
36.
The sole purpose of the Risk Control is to avoid risk
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
37.
Management controls involves limiting access to computer
resources
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
38.
Software developed by contractors who are not part of the
organization is referred to as in sourcing organizations
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
39.
Which one is not tester responsibilities ?
a. Assure the process for contracting software is adequate
b. Review the adequacy of the contractors test plan
c. Perform acceptance testing on the software
d. Assure the ongoing operation and maintenance of the contracted software
e. None of the above
ANSWER : a
a. Assure the process for contracting software is adequate
b. Review the adequacy of the contractors test plan
c. Perform acceptance testing on the software
d. Assure the ongoing operation and maintenance of the contracted software
e. None of the above
ANSWER : a
40.
The software tester may or may not be involved in the actual
acceptance testing
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
41.
In the client systems, testing should focus on performance and
compatibility
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
42.
A database access applications typically consists of following
elements except
a. User Interface code b. Business login code
c. Data-access service code d. Data Driven code
ANSWER : d
a. User Interface code b. Business login code
c. Data-access service code d. Data Driven code
ANSWER : d
43.
Wireless technologies represent a rapidly emerging area of
growth and importance for providing ever-present access to the internet and
email.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
44.
Acceptance testing involves procedures for identifying
acceptance criteria for interim life cycle products and for accepting them.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
45.
Acceptance testing is designed whether or not the software is
“fit” for the user to use. The concept of “fit” is important in both design and
testing. There are four components of “fit”.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
46.
Acceptance testing occurs only at the end point of the
development process; it should be an ongoing activity that test both interim
and final products.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
a. True b. False
ANSWER : b
47.
Acceptance requirement that a system must meet can be divided
into ________ categories.
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
ANSWER : c
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
ANSWER : c
48.
_______ categories of testing techniques can be used in
acceptance testing.
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
ANSWER : a
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
ANSWER : a
49.
_____________ define the objectives of the acceptance activities
and a plan for meeting them.
a. Project Manager b. IT Manager c. Acceptance Manager d. ICO
ANSWER : c
a. Project Manager b. IT Manager c. Acceptance Manager d. ICO
ANSWER : c
50.
Software Acceptance testing is the last opportunity for the user
to examine the software for functional, interface, performance, and quality
features prior to the final acceptance review.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
51.
_________ categories of data will be collected during testing.
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
ANSWER : c
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five
ANSWER : c
52.
______________ is normally a reverse of the test development
process. In other words, it begins at the very lowest level and the results are
rolled up to the highest levels.
a. Conducting testing b. Resuming testing
a. Conducting testing b. Resuming testing
c. Acceptance testing d. None of the above
ANSWER : a
ANSWER : a
53.
Whichh one is called as most common test report ?
a. Test Summary Report b. Check List c. Spreadsheet d. Cause-Effect Graphing
ANSWER : c
a. Test Summary Report b. Check List c. Spreadsheet d. Cause-Effect Graphing
ANSWER : c
54.
Verification that the process deliverables/ phases are meeting the
user’s true needs is called as
a. Inspections b. Reviews c. Acceptance testing d. Acceptance criteria
ANSWER : b
a. Inspections b. Reviews c. Acceptance testing d. Acceptance criteria
ANSWER : b
55.
_____________ the reporting process is very important because
software tools are being upgraded, and manual supporting activities sometimes
break down.
a. Analyzing b. Monitoring c. Both A & B d. None of the above
ANSWER : b
a. Analyzing b. Monitoring c. Both A & B d. None of the above
ANSWER : b
56.
_______________ report provides information related to a specific
project component.
a. Individual Project Status Report b. Major Project Status Report
c. Both A & B d. None of the Above
ANSWER : b
a. Individual Project Status Report b. Major Project Status Report
c. Both A & B d. None of the Above
ANSWER : b
57.
________________ report provides general information about all
projects.
a. Individual Project Status Report b. Major Project Status Report
c. Both A & B d. None of the Above
ANSWER : d
a. Individual Project Status Report b. Major Project Status Report
c. Both A & B d. None of the Above
ANSWER : d
58.
The Project Status Report contains the project activities
information and give a history of the project over a 16-month period.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
59.
The test reports are for use by the testers, the test manager, and
the software development team.
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
a. True b. False
ANSWER : a
60.
_________ is a risk-oriented activity in which resources should be
expended to minimize the major risks.
a. Testing b. Development
a. Testing b. Development
c. Quality Control d. Quality Assurance
ANSWER : a
ANSWER : a
61.
_______________ measure the
characteristics of the documentation and code.
a. Process metric b. Product metric
a. Process metric b. Product metric
c. Software quality metric d. Software metric
ANSWER : b
ANSWER : b
62.
Full form of QTP ?
Quick Test Professional
Quick Test Professional
63.
What's the QTP ?
QTP is Mercury Interactive Functional Testing Tool.
QTP is Mercury Interactive Functional Testing Tool.
64.
Which scripting language used by QTP ?
QTP uses VB scripting.
QTP uses VB scripting.
65.
What's the basic concept of QTP ?
QTP is based on two concept-
* Recording
* Playback
QTP is based on two concept-
* Recording
* Playback
66.
How many types of recording facility are available in QTP ?
QTP provides three types of recording methods-
* Context Recording (Normal)
* Analog Recording
* Low Level Recording
QTP provides three types of recording methods-
* Context Recording (Normal)
* Analog Recording
* Low Level Recording
67.
How many types of Parameters are available in QTP ?
QTP provides three types of Parameter-
* Method Argument
* Data Driven
* Dynamic
QTP provides three types of Parameter-
* Method Argument
* Data Driven
* Dynamic
68.
What's the QTP testing process ?
QTP testing process consist of seven steps-
* Preparing to recoding
* Recording
* Enhancing your script
* Debugging
* Run
* Analyze
* Report Defects
QTP testing process consist of seven steps-
* Preparing to recoding
* Recording
* Enhancing your script
* Debugging
* Run
* Analyze
* Report Defects
69.
What's the Active Screen ?
It provides the snapshots of your application as it appeared when you performed a certain steps during recording session.
It provides the snapshots of your application as it appeared when you performed a certain steps during recording session.
70.
What's the Test Pane ?
Test Pane contains Tree View and Expert View tabs.
Test Pane contains Tree View and Expert View tabs.
71.
What's Data Table ?
It assists to you about parameterizing the test.
It assists to you about parameterizing the test.
72.
What's the Test Tree ?
It provides graphical representation of your operations which you have performed with your application.
It provides graphical representation of your operations which you have performed with your application.
73.
Which all environment QTP supports ?
ERP/ CRM
Java/ J2EE
VB, .NET
Multimedia, XML
Web Objects, ActiveX controls
SAP, Oracle, Siebel, PeopleSoft
Web Services, Terminal Emulator
IE, NN, AOL
ERP/ CRM
Java/ J2EE
VB, .NET
Multimedia, XML
Web Objects, ActiveX controls
SAP, Oracle, Siebel, PeopleSoft
Web Services, Terminal Emulator
IE, NN, AOL
74.
How can you view the Test Tree ?
The Test Tree is displayed through Tree View tab.
The Test Tree is displayed through Tree View tab.
75.
What's the Expert View ?
Expert View display the Test Script.
Expert View display the Test Script.
76.
Which keyword used for Nornam Recording ?
F3
F3
77.
Which keyword used for run the test script ?
F5
F5
78.
Which keyword used for stop the recording ?
F4
79.
Which keyword used for Analog Recording ?
Ctrl+Shift+F4
Ctrl+Shift+F4
80.
Which keyword used for Low Level Recording ?
Ctrl+Shift+F3
Ctrl+Shift+F3
81.
Which keyword used for switch between Tree View and Expert View ?
Ctrl+Tab
Ctrl+Tab
82.
What's the Transaction ?
You can measure how long it takes to run a section of your test by defining transactions.
You can measure how long it takes to run a section of your test by defining transactions.
83.
Where you can view the results of the checkpoint ?
You can view the results of the checkpoints in the Test Result Window.
You can view the results of the checkpoints in the Test Result Window.
84.
What's the Standard Checkpoint ?
Standard Checkpoints checks the property value of an object in your application or web page.
Standard Checkpoints checks the property value of an object in your application or web page.
85.
Which environment are supported by Standard Checkpoint ?
Standard Checkpoint are supported for all add-in environments.
Standard Checkpoint are supported for all add-in environments.
86.
What's the Image Checkpoint ?
Image Checkpoint check the value of an image in your application or web page.
Image Checkpoint check the value of an image in your application or web page.
87.
Which environments are supported by Image Checkpoint ?
Image Checkpoint are supported only Web environment.
Image Checkpoint are supported only Web environment.
88.
What's the Bitmap Checkpoint ?
Bitmap Checkpoint checks the bitmap images in your web page or application.
Bitmap Checkpoint checks the bitmap images in your web page or application.
89.
Which enviornment are supported by Bitmap Checkpoints ?
Bitmap checkpoints are supported all add-in environment.
Bitmap checkpoints are supported all add-in environment.
90.
What's the Table Checkpoints ?
Table Checkpoint checks the information with in a table.
Table Checkpoint checks the information with in a table.
91.
Which environments are supported by Table Checkpoint ?
Table Checkpoints are supported only ActiveX environment.
Table Checkpoints are supported only ActiveX environment.
92.
What's the Text Checkpoint ?
Text Checkpoint checks that a test string is displayed in the appropriate place in your application or on web page.
Text Checkpoint checks that a test string is displayed in the appropriate place in your application or on web page.
- Which
environment are supported by Test Checkpoint ?
Text Checkpoint are supported all add-in environments
Note:
* QTP records each steps you perform and generates a test tree and test script.
* QTP records in normal recording mode.
* If you are creating a test on web object, you can record your test on one browser and run it on another browser.
* Analog Recording and Low Level Recording require more disk sapce than normal recording mode.
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